JAMES MALM CLAIMS THE NEW KING JAMES BIBLE IS FLAWED - HIS FLAWED PROOF IS ANALYZED

While I rarely visit his blog I did read an excerpt  last week from his comments on Bible translations. 

James Malm, writer of The Shining Light blog recommends to a commenter the King James Version Bible (KJV) exclusively and gives a website as his proof that the New King James Version (NKJV) is inferior and not reliable in it's translation of the Hebrew and Greek languages .   

The TTDOCF writer realizes that In academic circles some, not all, Bible Scholars claim the King James Version is superior to any other translation and should be the only one used by Christians. Many of these people think the New King James Version contains translational errors that lead readers into theological and doctrinal error. That the NJKV  translation does not accurately convey what God or the various writers were teaching. The True Doctrine of Christ Foundation disagrees with this and feels the New King James Version is an excellent translation and study tool for Christians seeking God's instruction and guidance.

Below is an example from one of three  websites given as proof by Malm promoting the KJV over the NK JV.  You will see again Malm's biblical expertise is lacking and he  is basically surfing the web Googling up sites he thinks offer proof of , in our view, his weak and baseless assertion. This  most likly stems from his very poor education in matters theological obtained at the Fundamentalist  Armstrong run Ambassador College.

James fails to fact check in this case the very proof he cites as we will explain.

David W Daniels, author of the King James Bible Companion, answers questions on the Chick Publications website that Malm refers his readers to.  Daniels contends that word meanings have been changed by the translators of the New King James Version  so that the reader will not be able to understand what God or the writer is speaking about.

Daniels writes:

Changed Words Means Changed Meanings

We know that Bible versions disagree on how to translate certain words. Here is an example: Is Jesus God's "Son" or God's "servant"? If He is God's Son, then we all need to listen to what He said! Changed words like this make a great deal of difference in how we understand a passage.

1. Loss of "thee" and "thou"
   Please decide what God is saying to Moses:

"And the LORD said to Moses, "How long do you refuse to keep My commandments and My laws?" (Exodus 16:28, NKJV)

It looks like God is saying, "Moses, you are continuing to refuse to keep My commandments and My laws." But look carefully at the accurate King James:

"And the LORD said unto Moses, How long refuse ye to keep my commandments and my laws?"

Now we understand! It was the people, not Moses, that God was upset with. "Ye" and "you" mean more than one person. "Thee," "thou," "thy," "thine," "doeth," "hast," etc., only mean one person. How do we know? The "y" is plural. The "t" is singular. Isn't that easy? Now you know what Jesus meant when He said to Nicodemus, "Marvel not that I said unto thee, Ye must be born again" (John 3:7).

This is the source James provided to his readers so you can read for yourself from <http://www.chick.com/ask/articles/nkjv.asp>

In the first example Daniels uses to illustrate his point , which is rather inane; "Is Jesus God's "Son" or God's "servant"?  If He is God's Son, then we all need to listen to what He said! Changed words like this make a great deal of difference in how we understand a passage. 

TTDOCF replies; In fact Jesus  was and is  BOTH.  Jesus came to be a servant to mankind, anyone recalling the example of Christ washing the disciples feet and His admonition to do likewise shows this writer lacks understanding of the Bible and it's lessons. I would not want to rely on his obvious lack of expertise to help me understand the Bible.

Malm - this is far from solid proof for your KJV superiority so far. But let us continue.

In the next section Daniels is saying that the words "thee and thou" being replaced by "ye an you" is confusing and that the reader will draw a different conclusion from the NKJV than from the KJV translation.  In the example from Exodus 16:28  in the NKJV, "And the Lord said to Moses, "How long do YOU refuse to keep My commandments and My laws?" Then the writer quotes the same passage from the KJV, "And the LORD said unto Moses, How long refuse YE to keep My commandments and laws?"

In the NKJV passage the writer claims that the word "you" makes it seem like God is talking to Moses directly, singular.  In the KJV the writer claims that "ye" someway makes it more clear God is talking to the "people," plural, and not Moses, singular.  In Daniel's first example he is saying the "you" is singular pointing at Moses and in his second example "ye" is more clear indicating plural, or the people. Daniel's then draws his own conclusion being, "Now we understand!"

TTDOCF asks, But do we?  NO!  By Daniels' own explanation in the next section he contradicts his own definitions, "it was the people, not Moses, that God was upset with. "Ye" and "you" mean more than one person."  Daniels just said that "ye" was better than "you" but then he goes on to state THEY BOTH MEAN THE SAME THING - PLURAL.  Then he digs an even deeper hole for himself and his contradiction to fall into in the next section.  "How do we know? The "y" is plural. The "t" is singular. Isn't that easy?"  How can he draw such an erroneous conclusion when the "Y" he uses is both singular and plural in his example above?

So why does he go on to further confuse the reader  (and himself) with this; "Now you know what Jesus meant when He said to Nicodemus, "Marvel not that I said unto thee, Ye must be born again" (John 3:7). He uses "thee" and "Ye" together in one sentence, one word singular with the "t" and another word plural with "y" by his own definition. But in fact he contradicts this by his own applications of "You" and "ye" which he claims are both plural. So what is the writer trying to prove, it is unknown from this example, more contradictions.

However, having made the argument in technical terms against Daniels' erroneous  assertions the reality was that God was talking directly to Moses AND  the people, both were included in this warning against breaking God's commandments and laws.  After the people broke the law and disobeyed God Moses ended up spending forty years wandering in the wilderness with them as a curse for their lack of faith. Then Moses, because he disobeyed God by striking the rock was barred from entering the promised land with the Israelites. So the "You" in actuality applied to All including Moses.  Either translation, if read within the context gives complete understanding of what God meant and the history of Israel's failings in obedience to God.

If James Malm feels Mr. Daniels is an expert source after reading and analyzing his view on the King James Version verses the New King James Version TTDOCF strongly disagrees with his position and his proof source.

We see another example here of Armstrong having wasted a lot of illegally collected tithe money and offerings seducing the churches' young people into attending  Ambassador College and then sending some into the field to pastor church congregations.  As it was in the WCGUA and is in the COG splinter groups now, "the blind leading the blind."

When one is converted and knows  salvation is a free gift  through the Grace of God and through Faith in Jesus, His Son, then the veil is lifted and blindness is gone. In my  forty plus years of studying God's word from the perspective of the Legalistic  I see now that most modern  translations of the New Testament are very clear on salvation,  It is only the Fundamentalist, Legalistic, Judaizes, who want to place an unbearable yoke and burden of the Law on disciples and spend much of their time reading from the Torah while blind.

With a veil over their hearts and minds rejecting Grace and Salvation in Jesus through Faith (2 Cor. 3:15-16) , it is they who argue pointlessly about Bible translations from the Hebrew. The Torah, the Law, contains an abolished covenant replaced by a better covenant and a new law because there is a new High Priest, Jesus Christ who has become the true believers Passover.

Why do some still refuse to enter the Kingdom of God and shut up access for those believers who would enter? Christ  warned the Pharisees in his day and for those of YOU FALSE SHEPHERDS today doing the same;

"Woe to you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! For you shut the kingdom of heaven against men; for you neither go in yourselves, nor do you allow those who are entering to go in."
Matthew 23:13 NKJV